I’m trying very hard to conquer the complexities of the modern Indo – European language research.
But with stuff like –
“Archaeo-semiotic” and “five-range hierarchical and decentralized communication web”
It’s all a bit mumbo jumbo at the mo’
I quite like plain and simple. Like the following…
…From NC :
“WHERE AND WHEN THE INDO-EUROPEAN LANGUAGES HAPPENED.
Speaking about the history of the Cathars = Scythians, one cannot but note the following. The era of the Reformation in Western Europe gave impetus to another process, with far-reaching consequences. Namely, the creation of new languages on the basis of the former Slavic (and Turkic).
In Scaligerian history, an important place is occupied by the theory of the origin of Indo-European languages from distant India. Moreover, India is understood in the modern sense – as a country on the Indian subcontinent. It is believed that the tongue has left India and has spread to many countries in ancient times. We see no reason here to object, with the exception of one. Where in fact was that “ancient India” where the Indo-European languages came from? And when was that?
According to our results, this is Russia-Horde of the XIV-XVI centuries. As a result of the great = “Mongol” conquest, a huge Empire arose, according to which in the XIV-XVI centuries the Slavic language spread and took root. Then, in distant parts of the Empire, it evolved in different directions. After its split at the beginning of the 17th century, individual branches of the ancient Slavic language went even further. In the end, modern Western European and some other languages arose from them. The Bible describes this as the “Babylonian confusion of languages,” when people no longer understood each other. It happened at the end of the XVI – beginning of the XVII century.
The Bible says: “ONE ALL THE EARTH WAS ONE LANGUAGE AND ONE ADVENTURE. MOVING FROM THE EAST, they found a plain in the land of Sennaar and settled there … And they said: we will build a city and a TOWER ALTITUDE TO HEAVEN, and make a name for ourselves, before rather than scatter in the face of the whole earth … And the Lord said: THERE IS ONE PEOPLE, AND ONE IN ALL LANGUAGES … we mix their language there, so that ONE DOES NOT UNDERSTAND THE SPEECH OF THE OTHER. And the Lord scattered them from there ALL THE EARTH; and they they ceased to build the city [and the tower.] Therefore, it was given its name: BABYLON, FOR THERE THE LORD MIXED THE LANGUAGE OF ALL THE EARTH, AND FROM THERE THE LORD SCATTERED THERE ALL THROUGHOUT THE EARTH “(Genesis 11: 1-2, 11: 4-9).”
That’s much more like it. Easy. Understandable. Straight forward :o)
About ten years ago I attended the lecture
Dr. Prodosh Aich: Jene Sprache Namens Sanskrit.
https://www.youtube.com/results?search_query=Prodosch+aich
and after that had a very interesting conversation with Dr. Habil. Prodosch Aich about his vision that sanscrit is influenced by the catholic monks of the Catholic Mission in Goa, and in fact has been created in the 16th century, when Goa was a Portuguese colony.
Could the word sanscrit be an abbreviation of “santo escrito” (Holy Scripture) ?
See also
ACHARYYA VERLAG FÜR KRITISCHE WISSENSCHAFT
https://acharyya.de/en/
Jordan Tabov
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Thank you very much for this information, Jordan. I will look into the links today. Much appreciated :o)
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