I’m beyond confused now.

An annotation to Shakespeare’s Titus Andronicus says this about Aaron the Moor aka Judas…

Morian (Aaron’s) account of his previous relations with the “Queen of Mehrenland” and the conquest of that land BY The Romans.

Several points.

Aaron’s lover in the play is Tamora, Queen of the Goths. By her he has a child.

He is Iago before Iago but after Judas. He is the GREAT BETRAYER.

Goths are German.

Mehren is in Germany. In the Rhineland-Palatinate to be exact.

I’m a bit familiar with Frederick V of the Palatinate and Elizabeth, daughter of James I Stuart. And their son, Rupert of the Rhine.

And the 30 Years War. And the loss of Bohemia. And Betty and Fred’s nicknames – The Winter King and Queen.

The last two sentences happened in the 17th century.

So WHAT does that have to do with a play set in 2 or 3 A.D and written in the 1500’s?

Was it telling a past or future story?

Or the one and only NEVER- ENDING story?

Overly Sarcastic? Moi?

P.S. Spolier Alert : Andronicus has his arm cut off willingly to save his sons’ lives….oops!

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